decker423 said:
This may sound cheesy but I get books like "10,0001 baby names" and books like that for unique/different names. They tend to give pronounciations, similiar names and historical origins/meanings. Gives a better flavor than your phone-book variety.
OK, but those names (Pallantides, etc..) are supposedly CLEAR references to particular ancient names in Latin and Greek (or Egyptian...but even the Egyptian or Parthian names are usually known by their Greek or Latin versions, and not by tehir original sounds).
REH was CLEARLY refering to names which sounded like Greek and Latin....the only problem is that we will never know whether he really knew how those names should have been properly pronounced...
Now we can see two scenarios:
1) REH reading these names as they were really read in ancient reality (I would say PALLANTIDES = PALLANTIDES)
2) REH reading those names in one of the numerous deviations which English speakers do of Latin/Greek names (for example PALLANTIDES = PELLENTAIDIS or PALLENTIDIS or whatever sounds better for you).
Whatever the reality, I prefer Hypothesis no.1.
This is easier for me (as for any Italian or Spanish speaking player).
I agree that Americans and English people (and REH was American...) could choose whether they use Latin pronunciations or different pronunciations.
I once heard a Professor saying that Latin Alphabet (the one we are using HERE and everywhere), was supposed to be used for Latin, where vowels have just one sound.
Germanic languages (e.g. English) have other sounds which where not included in a Latin alphabet, but the alphabet was more or less adapted.
This is the reason why the same syllabs and vowels can be read in English in different ways while for us (Italians, Spaniards, etc..) "A" is always pronounced as "A".
In conclusion, I do not think there is really an official, correct answer.
For me it's No.1...but maybe for you it's no.2!