Give a opinion

[JMISBEST]

I want a opinion, please help

If A Weapon does increased damage against a specific race would it still do increased damage against Undead members of that specific race?

 

[M J Dougherty]

If Legend uses the same concepts as RQII Glorantha, I'd say not, bsed on runic affiliations. Undead are not tied to their form rune (man, beast etc) any more, but have the undead rune.

 

[Vile]

If it's based on body type, e.g. unusually fragile structure, I'd say yes as the body type will still apply to the undead. If it's based on a particular vulnerability, e.g. flammability - again, I'd say yes, unless you can find a way to fireproof the undead version.

 

[soltakss]

If A Weapon does increased damage against a specific race would it still do increased damage against Undead members of that specific race?

Personally, I would say yes.

A zombie troll is still a troll.

 

[Vile]

If A Weapon does increased damage against a specific race would it still do increased damage against Undead members of that specific race?

Personally, I would say yes. A zombie troll is still a troll.

There might be cases where I would say no - for example, if you use the idea that trolls are poisoned by iron and thus take extra damage from iron weapons, if the undead state confers immunity to poisons then they should just take normal damage from iron weapons.

If there's a magical reason for the extra damage, I think it's a referee call - to what extent is the undead version subject to the same rules on magic? Are zombies just animated lumps of matter, or do they retain part of their former 'being'?