Steve Bowen
Mongoose
In an opposed test where both parties fail, the one who rolls lowest, wins the test, the rulebook says. I presume that this is because they were closer to succeeding and "failed less" by virtue of their lower roll. It makes perfect sense to me.
However, I would also expect this to be the case if both parties succeed in an opposed test. A lower roll is a better success, therefore the party who rolls lower should defeat the party that rolls higher. However the rules clearly state that the higher roll wins in an opposed test where both parties succeed. I am utterly bewildered! I feel like I am overlooking something very obvious but I cannot figure out what it is.
What am I missing?
However, I would also expect this to be the case if both parties succeed in an opposed test. A lower roll is a better success, therefore the party who rolls lower should defeat the party that rolls higher. However the rules clearly state that the higher roll wins in an opposed test where both parties succeed. I am utterly bewildered! I feel like I am overlooking something very obvious but I cannot figure out what it is.
What am I missing?