HalfOrc HalfBiscuit
Mongoose
I'm still slowly digesting (or at least trying to digest) the new rules (sadly I have plenty of time to do it as I don't have an active game at present
).
Anyway, I note that when a character suffers a serious or major wound they must now make an opposed resilience test versus the opponent's successful attack roll.
I would be grateful for some insight into the logic behind this choice. I realise that under the MRQ1 rules where there was a straight resilience check, there was a risk of PCs raising their resilience scores to such a point as to more or less guarantee success. However, I wonder why the opponent's attack roll was chosen for the opposed test instead of, say, 10 x the damage inflicted by the wound causing the check.
Assuming an existing wound that has already brought the character close to the threshold, why is a 2HP wound from a skilled opponent more likely to have serious effects than a 10 HP lucky shot from an unskilled one?
To clarify this point, consider this scenario: Andy the adventurer has a resilience score of 70%. He is fighting Vinny the villain who has 95% in a fighting style. Andy has already suffered a serious would to his chest, but has managed to remain conscious. Vinny hits him in the chest again, but only just, rolling 90% on his attach and scoring 2 HP - enough to take Andy to a major wound. Since in an opposed test, where both participants roll the same level of success the one with the higher dice roll wins, Andy has to roll a critical success or die.
Take the same scenario but now Andy faces Tommy the troll who only has 40%, but is very strong and wielding a large weapon. He rolls 35% and hits Andy for 10 HP. In the opposed test, Andy now avoids death not only if he rolls a critical, but also if he succeeds by rolling 36-70%.
This feels wrong to me. I realise such a scenario may occur very very rarely, but the possibility is there.
There's also a much more common possibility that I'm also not sure of here - what opposes resilience in a situation where the damage occurs without an attack roll (falling/collapsing building etc.)?

Anyway, I note that when a character suffers a serious or major wound they must now make an opposed resilience test versus the opponent's successful attack roll.
I would be grateful for some insight into the logic behind this choice. I realise that under the MRQ1 rules where there was a straight resilience check, there was a risk of PCs raising their resilience scores to such a point as to more or less guarantee success. However, I wonder why the opponent's attack roll was chosen for the opposed test instead of, say, 10 x the damage inflicted by the wound causing the check.
Assuming an existing wound that has already brought the character close to the threshold, why is a 2HP wound from a skilled opponent more likely to have serious effects than a 10 HP lucky shot from an unskilled one?
To clarify this point, consider this scenario: Andy the adventurer has a resilience score of 70%. He is fighting Vinny the villain who has 95% in a fighting style. Andy has already suffered a serious would to his chest, but has managed to remain conscious. Vinny hits him in the chest again, but only just, rolling 90% on his attach and scoring 2 HP - enough to take Andy to a major wound. Since in an opposed test, where both participants roll the same level of success the one with the higher dice roll wins, Andy has to roll a critical success or die.
Take the same scenario but now Andy faces Tommy the troll who only has 40%, but is very strong and wielding a large weapon. He rolls 35% and hits Andy for 10 HP. In the opposed test, Andy now avoids death not only if he rolls a critical, but also if he succeeds by rolling 36-70%.
This feels wrong to me. I realise such a scenario may occur very very rarely, but the possibility is there.
There's also a much more common possibility that I'm also not sure of here - what opposes resilience in a situation where the damage occurs without an attack roll (falling/collapsing building etc.)?